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According to a report by Goal.com’s Ives Galarcep, American defensive midfielder Caleb Stanko is headed to MLS expansion team FC Cincinnati for an undisclosed fee. Stanko currently features for Bundesliga side Freiburg, but missed the second half of the 2017-2018 season and all of this current season due to a meniscus injury. He is now fully healthy and will hope to hit the ground running with FCC.
Update: Freiburg has announced the transfer, and it is now official.
Caleb #Stanko wird den #SCF verlassen und wechselt zum @fccincinnati in die @MLS . pic.twitter.com/B7rcwm1N7r
— SC Freiburg (@scfreiburg) January 23, 2019
The 25-year-old signed with Freiburg in 2011, directly out of high school and was a regular for Freiburg II (the reserve side, playing in the German fourth division). Stanko missed the majority of the 2014-2015 season after tearing his ACL. He debuted for Freiburg’s senior side in 2015, when the team was playing in the 2.Bundesliga.
The 2016-2017 season was Stanko’s most successful, as he made 26 Swiss Super League appearances while on loan to FC Vaduz. However, Vaduz was relegated after finishing last in the 10-team league. Stanko has one cap for the United States Men’s National Team, appearing for 17 minutes during a 2016 CONCACAF World Cup Qualifying victory against Trinidad and Tobago. He previously featured for the U.S. U-20 side at the 2013 FIFA U-20 World Cup.
He should prove to be a regular for FCC and could join fellow American defensive midfielders Fatai Alashe and Victor Ullo in the lineup. According to The Athletic’s Kristian Dyer, Stanko’s contract will be paid down with Targeted Allocation Money.
Do you think this is a good move for Stanko?